Name: 
 

100 APES EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

The difference between an environmentalist and an environmental scientist is
a.
negligible because both care about Earth.
b.
that an environmentalist is involved in a social movement; whereas an environmental scientist is concerned with the methods of science.
c.
that an environmental scientist has a background in biology and chemistry; whereas, an environmentalist studies the humanities.
d.
an environmentalist is generally a radical.
e.
an environmentalist is involved in a social movement; whereas, an environmental scientist is concerned with politics.
 

 2. 

Sustainable development
a.
was demonstrated on Easter Island.
b.
requires resources to be saved and stored for one generation.
c.
is achieved when food is raised by the people who are eating it.
d.
balances human needs and economic development.
e.
Allows for clear-cutting of trees.
 

 3. 

If every person on Earth today lived with the average lifestyle of people in the United States, the land of _____ earths would be required.
a.
2
b.
5
c.
8
d.
10
e.
20
 

 4. 

Which of the following are environmental indicators used to show that the San Francisco Sustainability Plan is successful?
a.
increase in the number of parks and in the number of department stores.
b.
decrease in the amount of solid waste produced and increase in the size of houses.
c.
improved air conditioning in private homes.
d.
decrease of wastewater produced and increased biodiversity.
e.
All of these answers are correct.
 

 5. 

The polarity of the water molecule is the result of
a.
the slight negative charge of the hydrogen atoms.
b.
shared electrons spending more time near the oxygen atom than near the hydrogen atoms.
c.
shared electrons spending more time near the hydrogen atoms than near the oxygen atom.
d.
boiling point.
e.
two positive sides repelling each other.
 

 6. 

An exception to the law of conservation of matter is seen in
a.
nuclear reactions in which matter may change into energy.
b.
single replacement reactions.
c.
double replacement reactions.
d.
both b and c.
e.
the natural environment, where most waste can be buried forever.
 

 7. 

The “ability to do work “ is called
a.
power
b.
joules
c.
energy.
d.
heat
e.
radiation.
 

 8. 

Energy is measured in
a.
hertz.
b.
joules or calories.
c.
kilowatts.
d.
wavelengths.
e.
watts.
 

 9. 

An example of applying new energy in order to decrease entropy can be seen in
a.
eating lunch to have the energy to clean up your lab station.
b.
the teacher’s desk that is littered with papers by the end of class.
c.
lawnmower clippings all over the lawn.
d.
hot water as it cools off.
e.
nails scraping on the blackboard.
 

 10. 

Which element is the primary component of fossil fuels?
a.
Carbon
b.
Hydrogen
c.
Oxygen
d.
Phosphorus
e.
Nitrogen
 

 11. 

What group of organisms is primarily responsible for the processes that occur in the nitrogen cycle?
a.
Autotrophs
b.
Heterotrophs
c.
Bacteria
d.
Detritovores
e.
Scavengers
 

 12. 

What is the overall direction of global air currents at the equator?
a.
Air rises at the equator
b.
Air sinks at the equator
c.
Air moves horizontally to the north at the equator
d.
Air moves horizontally to the south at the equator
e.
Air is relatively stable at the equator.
 

 13. 

The Coriolis Effect and prevailing winds contribute to the formation of gyres in the oceans. Which direction do these gyres flow in the Northern Hemisphere?
a.
North to South
b.
South to North
c.
Clockwise
d.
Counterclockwise
e.
East to West
 
 
Figure 4-5

nar001-1.jpg
 

 14. 

Use Figure 4-5. In the diagram above, at what locations is water sinking?
I. 1
II. 2
III. 4
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
II and III
e.
I and II
 
 
Figure 4-8
nar002-1.jpg
 

 15. 

Use Figure 4-8. Which of the zones in the diagram above is the stratosphere?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 
 
Figure 4-9
nar003-1.jpg
 

 16. 

Use Figure 4-9. In the diagram above, which of the zones is the benthic zone?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 
 
Figure 5-2

nar004-1.jpg
 

 17. 

Use Figure 5-2. The diagram shown is known as a:
a.
Branching diagram
b.
Phylogenetic tree
c.
Evolutionary diagram
d.
Ancestral trace
e.
Species evolutionary tree
 

 18. 

When part of one chromosome breaks off and reattaches to another chromosome, this is known as:
a.
A mutation
b.
Reattachment disorder
c.
Natural selection
d.
Recombination
e.
Genetic merging
 

 19. 

Which of the following pairs would increase the rate of evolution within a species?
a.
Slow environmental change and high genetic variation
b.
Rapid environmental change and large population size
c.
Long generation times and low genetic variation
d.
Large population size and slow environmental change
e.
Short generation time and large population size
 
 
Figure 5-5

nar005-1.jpg
 

 20. 

Use Figure 5-5. Based on the diagram, which of the following statements is incorrect?
a.
This area turned from land covered by an ocean to land
b.
This area was flooded and turned into an ocean
c.
The fossils in layer E are older than the fossils in layer D
d.
The fossils in layer C are older than the fossils in layer A
e.
The layers show an increase in complexity of living organisms
 

 21. 

How would a collision with a meteorite lead to a worldwide, mass extinction?
a.
A large meteorite would produce a dust cloud that blocked sunlight, reducing photosynthesis
b.
A large meteorite would crush a large number of organisms, reducing population sizes
c.
A large meteorite would destroy a large area of habitat, reducing population sizes
d.
The collision would increase global temperatures rapidly and populations would not be able to adapt
e.
A large meteorite would produce a large dust cloud, reducing overall air quality
 

 22. 

According to the fossil record, the number of genera of plants and animals that have been present on Earth has:
a.
Steadily increased over the last 500 million years
b.
Steadily decreased over the last 500 million years
c.
Remained constant over the last 500 million years
d.
Varied greatly over the last 500 million years
e.
First began to decrease after humans evolved
 

 23. 

The change in genetic composition of a population over time is called
a.
Evolution
b.
Phenotype
c.
Genotype
d.
Artificial selection
e.
Mutation
 

 24. 

A laboratory experiment followed the growth of a flour beetle (Tribolium sp.) population over time.  At first the population increased dramatically but later growth slowed and the population size leveled off.  While food (the wheat flour in which they live) was abundant, it was noticed that flour beetles resorted to eating their own eggs when densities got high.  What can we conclude about cannibalism in this species?
a.
It has no effect on the growth of the population, as food scarcity is clearly the limiting factor here.
b.
It is clearly maladaptive as populations always do best when their densities rise as high as possible.
c.
It serves as a density-dependent means of population control.
d.
It serves as a density-independent means of population control.
e.
We cannot reach any conclusion based on the information provided.
 

 25. 

_____ succession begins on bare rock after glaciers have passed, or on newly formed volcanic islands.
a.
Primary
b.
Secondary
c.
Climax
d.
Pioneer
e.
Not enough information to tell
 

 26. 

Developing countries tend to have a(n) ____ age structure diagram.
a.
rectangular-shaped
b.
inverted triangle
c.
pyramid-shaped
d.
square
e.
round
 

 27. 

U.S. citizens have a large ecological footprint because of their high consumption of
a.
food.
b.
lumber.
c.
energy resources.
d.
space.
e.
all of the above
 

 28. 

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10% would double in
a.
7 years
b.
10 years
c.
15 years
d.
17 years
e.
Not enough information to tell
 

 29. 

Approximately what percentage of people in developed countries live in urban areas?
a.
10
b.
25
c.
50
d.
75
e.
90
 

 30. 

What is true about the operation of nuclear power plants in seismically active areas?
a.
The large majority of nuclear power plants are located in seismically active areas.
b.
Nuclear power plants are designed to harness the energy of seismic activity to generate additional power.
c.
Seismic activity has no safety implications for nuclear power plants.
d.
Nuclear power plants are programmed to shut down if ground movement above a certain threshold occurs.
e.
Because of safety concerns, no nuclear power plant has ever been constructed in a seismically active area.
 

 31. 

Select the correct combination of igneous rock type and composition.
a.
Granitic-high concentrations of magnesium, iron, and calcium.
b.
Granitic-feldspar, mica, quartz
c.
Basaltic- high concentrations of magnesium, iron, and calcium.
d.
Basaltic-feldspar, mica, quartz.
e.
b and c.
 

 32. 

Metamorphic rocks
a.
can only be formed from rocks that originate from magmatic melt.
b.
have been subjected to high heat and pressure.
c.
can result from exposure to tectonic forces.
d.
include marble and slate.
e.
both b and d.
 
 
Figure 8-2

nar006-1.jpg
 

 33. 

Use Figure 8-2. Which horizon is known to have organic matter or humus?
a.
O horizon.
b.
A horizon.
c.
B horizon.
d.
C horizon.
e.
None of the Above
 

 34. 

The world’s three largest rivers are the
a.
Yangtze, Congo, and Indus.
b.
Yangtze, Amazon, and Tigris.
c.
Amazon, Yangtze, and Congo.
d.
Amazon, Nile, and Hudson.
e.
Euphrates, Amazon, and Nile.
 

 35. 

Dikes in the Netherlands
a.
are used in association with pumps to remove sea water.
b.
are necessary because more than 1/4 of the land is below sea level.
c.
may be needed in the very near future, but are not in place yet.
d.
originally used pumps powered by windmills.
e.
a, b and d are all correct.
 

 36. 

The following scenario describes huge changes in the Aral Sea in Central Asia:
a.
The former Soviet Union diverted rivers, increasing the water levels and decreasing salinity in the Aral Sea.
b.
China built a dam, which decreased water levels downstream.
c.
Water was diverted for irrigation, decreasing the water levels and increasing salinity in the Aral Sea.
d.
Dust storms were created from sediment on the dried seafloor.
e.
both c and d.
 

 37. 

More than half the irrigated land in the world is located in
a.
China, the United States, India and Pakistan.
b.
China, Norway, India and Pakistan.
c.
China, the United States, Russia and Pakistan.
d.
Japan, the United States, India and Mongolia.
e.
China, South Korea, India and Pakistan.
 

 38. 

The amount of water required for raising one metric ton of beef is
a.
110 liters.
b.
1,100 liters.
c.
11,000 liters.
d.
110,000 liters.
e.
11 million liters.
 

 39. 

Drip irrigation
a.
is valuable in areas where underground hoses do not have to be moved for annual plowing.
b.
involves dripping water near the roots of a plant.
c.
is 95% water efficient.
d.
reduces weed growth.
e.
all of these answers are correct.
 

 40. 

You are selecting a new dishwasher. You do about 150 loads per year. The less efficient model uses 9 gallons per load. The more efficient model uses 6 gallons per load. How much money will be saved on water if you select the more efficient model and the price of water is $0.75 per 1000 gallons?
a.
$0.34
b.
$3.30
c.
$33
d.
$330
e.
$3000
 

 41. 

From an economic standpoint which forest harvesting technique is generally best?
a.
Clear-cutting
b.
Shelterbelt
c.
Shelter tree
d.
Selective cutting
e.
Ecologically sustainable forestry
 

 42. 

Currently, most of the US population lives in ____ areas.
a.
Rural
b.
Suburban
c.
Exurban
d.
Urban
e.
Superurban
 

 43. 

Which of the following is NOT a cause of urban sprawl?
a.
Automobiles
b.
Highway construction
c.
Government policies
d.
Urban blight
e.
Smart growth
 

 44. 

Monocropping has a number of disadvantages. These include all of the following EXCEPT
a.
Erosion due to exposure of large areas of soil during planting
b.
Nutrition and pesticide needs should be similar throughout a single crop
c.
Pests are more likely to attack a monocrop due to the high concentration
d.
Loss of habitat for natural pest predators
e.
Reduction of productivity due to loss of nutrient-rich topsoil
 

 45. 

Scientists have inserted a gene for the production of vitamin A into rice. This practice of changing the genetic structure of agricultural products to improve desirable traits is known as
a.
Genetic Engineering
b.
Transmodification
c.
Selective Breeding
d.
Natural Selection
e.
Animal Husbandry
 

 46. 

Some scientists want to genetically modify crops for pest resistance. Possible strategies include insertion of the ____ gene from ____
a.
PGlow; Aquia victoria
b.
Bt; Bacillus thuringiensis
c.
Sonic Hedgehog; Escherichia coli
d.
STx1; E. Coli
e.
Roundup ready; Conyza biotypes
 

 47. 

Overnutrition can lead to many maladies. These include all of the following EXCEPT
a.
Type II diabetes
b.
Hypertension
c.
Heart disease
d.
Stroke
e.
HIV/AIDS
 
 
Figure 11-1

nar007-1.jpg
 

 48. 

Use Figure 11-1. Based on the above recommended daily allowances, which of the following categorical groups would require the largest caloric intake?
a.
Adolescent males
b.
Adolescent females
c.
Infant males
d.
Infant females
e.
Young men
 
 
Figure 11-2

nar008-1.jpg
 

 49. 

Use Figure 11-2. By about how much did aquaculture increase from 1980 to 2000?
a.
10 million metric tons
b.
15 million metric tons
c.
30 million metric tons
d.
50 million metric tons
e.
80 million metric tons
 
 
Figure 11-3

nar009-1.jpg
 

 50. 

Use Figure 11-3. If you input a total of 3,000,000 calories of energy into small-scale corn farming, about how many calories of food will you produce?
a.
300,000
b.
600,000
c.
3,000,000
d.
6,000,000
e.
15,000,000
 

 51. 

Use Figure 11-3. For which type of food production are the calories of energy inputs about equal to the calories of food produced?
a.
Grass-fed beef
b.
Large-scale corn
c.
Hunting and gathering
d.
Far-offshore fishing
e.
Coastal fishing
 
 
Figure 12-2

nar010-1.jpg
[Source: http://www.eia.doe.gov/emeu/aer/eh/eh.html]
 

 52. 

Use Figure 12-2. For the majority of the history of the United States, the predominant fuel source has been
a.
petroleum
b.
natural gas
c.
coal
d.
wood
e.
nuclear
 
 
Figure 12-3

nar011-1.jpg
[Source:  http://www.eia.doe.gov/oiaf/1605/ggccebro/chapter1.html]
 

 53. 

Use Figure 12-3. Which of the following fuel types produces the highest ratio of percent resulting CO2 emissions to percent consumption?
a.
Natural gas
b.
Non-fossil
c.
Coal
d.
Petroleum
e.
The ratios are the same for all fuel types.
 

 54. 

Use Figure 12-3. Why is there a large presence of petroleum in the top chart, but only a small presence in the bottom chart?
a.
In the U.S., petroleum is used mostly as a transportation fuel.
b.
The majority of electricity in the U.S. is produced by burning natural gas.
c.
Liquid fuels are always unsuitable for electricity production.
d.
Since coal causes less pollution than petroleum, the U.S. prefers to produce electricity with coal.
e.
Due to renewable energy technologies, fossil fuels are not necessary for electricity production.
 

 55. 

If the capacity of a power plant is 1000 MW and its capacity factor is 0.9, how much energy in MWh can the power plant produce in 1 day?
a.
27,000 MWh
b.
26,700 MWh
c.
21,600 MWh
d.
9000 MWh
e.
2160 MWh
 

 56. 

The countries with large commercial uranium mining operations are
a.
France, Australia, the United States
b.
Russia, Canada, the United States
c.
Australia, Canada, France
d.
Australia, the United States, Canada
e.
Canada, France, Russia
 

 57. 

An electric company’s tiered rate system charges customers
a.
increasingly higher rates for less renewable resources
b.
different rates based on the square footage of their dwelling
c.
lower rates for first increments of energy and higher rates as the usage goes up
d.
different rates based on high peak events
e.
increasingly higher rates for renewable resources
 
 
Table 13-1

Type of TelevisionOn Mode Power Rating
50” Plasma Television400 watts
52” LCD Television220 watts
52” LCD Energy Star Television120 watts
 

 58. 

Use Table 13-1. If a community has 200,000 homes and 1% of those homes have Plasma televisions, how many kWh of excess energy are being consumed every year (365 days) than if those homes had Energy Star LCD televisions instead?
a.
350,000 kWh
b.
524,000 kWh
c.
818,000 kWh
d.
1,168,000 kWh
e.
4.906,000 kWh
 
 
Figure 13-2

Where Does My Money Go?
The annual energy bill for a typical single home is approximately $2,200.

nar013-1.jpg
 

 59. 

Use Figure 13-2. If a typical home was able to cut its heating costs by 25%, about how much money would it save per year?
a.
$15.95
b.
$85.35
c.
$159.50
d.
$550.00
e.
$638.00
 
 
Figure 13-4

nar014-1.jpg
 

 60. 

Use Figure 13-4. If the trend from 2006 to 20007 continued, approximately how many kWh would have been generated in 2008?
a.
36 x 106
b.
36 x 109
c.
42 x 106
d.
42 x 109
e.
68 x 109
 

 61. 

Using heat from radioactive decay deep within Earth to heat water to spin turbines is an example of
a.
tidal power
b.
geothermal energy
c.
biomass
d.
hydroelectric power
e.
solar energy
 

 62. 

A man-made pond constructed to hold animal waste is called a
a.
septic tank
b.
manure lagoon
c.
feed lot
d.
leach field
e.
sewage treatment plant
 

 63. 

Which of the following is NOT related to overflows of sewage in the United States?
a.
Human illness due to the eating of contaminated shellfish
b.
Human illness due to swimming in contaminated waters
c.
Human illness due to drinking of contaminated waters
d.
The pumping of untreated water from plants due to heavy rain events.
e.
All of the above are related to overflows of sewage in the United States
 

 64. 

The material rotating in the North Pacific Gyre can best be described as
a.
solid waste composed of mostly plastics
b.
organic waste dumped from cruiseships
c.
medical waste dumped by the United States
d.
coal slag dumped by China
e.
solid waste from countries without landfills
 

 65. 

The Clean Water Act
I. Protects surface waters
II. Protects groundwater
III. Protects the diversity of aquatic species
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
I and II only
d.
I and III only
e.
I, II, and III
 

 66. 

Ground level ozone is classified as a pollutant because it reduces lung functionality AND
a.
its concentrations are low but the particle size is high
b.
it occurs in the atmosphere only
c.
it is entirely anthropogenic in nature
d.
it can degrade plant surfaces
e.
it is an unstable molecule
 

 67. 

Which of the following ranges correctly describes the pH of acid deposition?
a.
pH < 5.6
b.
7 > pH > 5.6
c.
7 < pH > 5.6
d.
pH < 8.6
e.
7 < pH < 8.6
 
 
Figure 15-3

nar015-1.jpg
 

 68. 

Use Figure 15-3. The change in acid deposition for the southern half of the state of Michigan from 1989-1991 to 2006-2008 is
a.
a decrease of approximately 5%
b.
a decrease of approximately 50%
c.
it has stayed relatively the same
d.
an increase of approximately 1%
e.
an increase of approximately 5%
 

 69. 

Which of the following pollution control measures reduces nitrogen oxide emissions from the burning of coal?
a.
Electrostatic precipitators
b.
Fabric filters
c.
Scrubbers
d.
Lowering coal burning temperatures
e.
Fluidized bed combustion
 

 70. 

The Clean Skies Initiative proposed a SO2 emissions reduction from 11 million tons in 2002 to 4.5 million tons in 2010. What was the proposed total percentage decrease of SO2 emissions?
a.
6.5%
b.
41%
c.
47%
d.
59%
e.
65%
 

 71. 

The protective layer of oxygen and stratospheric ozone absorb over 99% of incoming
a.
solar radiation
b.
UV radiation
c.
UV-A and UV-B radiation
d.
UV-B and UV-C radiation
e.
UV-A and UV-C radiation
 

 72. 

The depletion of ozone over Antarctica is greatest during
a.
August through November
b.
December through February
c.
February through May
d.
June through August
e.
the ozone hole is consistent in size throughout the year
 
 
Figure 15-5

Number of people living in countries with air quality concentrations above the level of the primary national Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) in 2006.
nar016-1.jpg
 

 73. 

Use Figure 15-5. In 2006, the total population of the U.S. was approximately 300,000,000 people. About what percent of those people lived in counties where carbon monoxide levels exceeded the NAAQS?
a.
0.2%
b.
0.7%
c.
2%
d.
20%
e.
70%
 

 74. 

When conducting a life-cycle analysis of manufactured goods which of the following would NOT be considered?
a.
the amount of raw material required
b.
the amount of energy needed to transport the material
c.
the amount of money the end product will cost
d.
the chemicals used in the manufacture of the goods
e.
the disposal of the product
 
 
Figure 16-2

nar017-1.jpg
 

 75. 

Use Figure 16-2. The country with the most efficient removal of materials from the waste stream is
a.
Netherlands
b.
Denmark
c.
Austria
d.
Greece
e.
Belgium
 

 76. 

The US legislation that imposes a tax on targeted industrial facilities and then utilizes those funds to cleanup selected abandoned hazardous waste sites is
a.
NEPA
b.
CWA
c.
CERCLA
d.
RCRA
e.
NPA
 
 
Figure 16-3

Population of the United States served by curbside recycling
nar018-1.jpg
Source: U.S. Census Bureau, BioCycle April 2006, California Integrated Waste Management Board, Illinois Recycling Association, www.coloradocurbside.com, Nebraska State Recycling Association, Pennsylvania Department of Environmental Protection
 

 77. 

Use Figure 16-3. Which region provides approximately 3/4 of its population with curbside recycling?
a.
the Northeast
b.
the Southwest
c.
the Midwest
d.
the West
e.
the South
 
 
Figure 16-4

Material generation and recovery, 1960 to 2008

Paper and Paperboard
nar019-1.jpg

Plastics
nar019-2.jpg
 

 78. 

Use Figure 16-4. There has been approximately a ____ in the use of plastics from 1980 to 2005.
a.
53% decrease
b.
53% increase
c.
75% increase
d.
200% increase
e.
300% increase
 

 79. 

A company that manufactures its goods with the goal of reducing the overall environmental impact of the MSW might do all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
ship its e-waste to developing countries
b.
compost any food waste generated
c.
use materials in such a way that they are easily separated during disassembly
d.
change the product packaging to use less material
e.
produce a product whereby at the end of its life-cycle only one component needs to be replaced to have a functional product again.
 

 80. 

Which component of a landfill is extracted and either used as fuel or burned off?
a.
clay liner
b.
leachate
c.
solid waste
d.
methane
e.
toxic metals
 
 
Table 17-1

Percentage of deaths attributable to each of six risk factors, and to all six risks combined, for child and maternal malnutrition: countries grouped by income, 2004
Risk
World
Low Income
Middle Income
Percentage of Deaths
Childhood underweight3.87.80.7
Suboptimal breastfeeding2.13.71.1
Vitamin A deficiency1.12.20.3
Zinc deficiency0.71.50.2
Iron deficiency0.50.80.2
Iodine deficiency0.00.00.0
All six risks6.612.72.1
    
 

 81. 

Use Table 17-1. If there were 15,000 child deaths in a low-income country in a particular month, what is the best estimate of the number of those deaths that are attributable to any form of malnutrition?
a.
15,000
b.
2400
c.
1900
d.
1000
e.
300
 
 
Figure 17-4

nar021-1.jpg
 

 82. 

Use Figure 17-4. The point on the curve where the two dashed lines intersect represents all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
the dose at which 50% of the test subjects die
b.
the dose that kills the entire population
c.
the LD50
d.
a dose at which scientists can compare this chemical’s lethality to other chemicals
e.
the relative toxicity of the chemical on a specific group of species
 

 83. 

Which of the following ecosystem types has only recently gained attention in the practice of conservation?
a.
tropical rain forests
b.
grasslands and prairies
c.
sensitive marine habitats
d.
red wood forests
e.
wetlands
 

 84. 

Human-controlled breeding has created homogenous gene pools in livestock and crop plants, leading to an increased:
a.
diversity in crop variety
b.
resistance to disease
c.
endangerment of domestic species
d.
soil erosion
e.
vitamin D deficiency
 

 85. 

Alien species often pose a threat to native species because:
a.
native species are less genetically diverse than alien species
b.
alien species often have no natural enemies in their new location
c.
both share similar parasite types
d.
the non-native species does not compete with native species
e.
native species refuse to mate with other native species
 

 86. 

An example of an alien species that would have been introduced by the ballast water of ocean freighters would be:
a.
Sea Lamprey
b.
zebra mussel
c.
brown tree snake
d.
rats
e.
mongoose
 

 87. 

A pronounced example of humans overharvesting a species to extinction may be seen in the tragedy surrounding the:
a.
passenger pigeon
b.
bison
c.
American alligator
d.
African elephant
e.
blue whale
 

 88. 

An example of non-point source pollution that could have an impact on a species population and system composition would be:
a.
effluent from a sewage treatment discharge pipe
b.
thermal pollution from a nuclear power plant
c.
copper sulfate applied to a specific portion of a stream to treat an exotic species
d.
nutrient run-off from agricultural fields
e.
oil spill from a drilling rig
 

 89. 

Which of the following can be considered reasonable hypotheses to explain the recent trend in warming of surface temperatures globally?
I. If greenhouse gas concentrations increase in the troposphere, then surface temperatures will increase
II. If the area of polar ice increases, then the surface temperatures will increase
III. If incoming solar radiation is greater than the release of outgoing infrared radiation, then surface temperatures will increase
a.
I
b.
II
c.
I and III
d.
II and III
e.
I, II and III
 

 90. 

Which of the following greenhouse gases is responsible for trapping the most outgoing infrared radiation?
a.
water vapor
b.
carbon dioxide
c.
ozone
d.
methane
e.
nitrous oxide
 

 91. 

Which of the following is likely to be the most difficult hurdle to overcome from current and future sea level rise?
a.
an increase in wetland area
b.
compensating for the mass migration of coastal people
c.
lack of aquatic transportation
d.
an increase in seafood production
e.
reduction in annual hurricane precipitation in coastal zones
 

 92. 

Which of the following would provide the most ecologically sound approach to sequestering carbon that has already been emitted into the atmosphere?
a.
converting methane-emitting wetlands into agricultural land
b.
allowing agricultural fields to become pasture or forest
c.
introducing termite bio-controls to reduce the production of methane
d.
interrupting bacterial respiration to reduce carbon output
e.
applying nitrates to oceans to stimulate algal growth and thus photosynthetic activity
 
 
Table 19-1

Greenhouse gas emission by livestock category in 2005
Animal TypeTotal CO2 emission equivalent (millions of metric tons)
Beef cattle168.3
Dairy cattle51.2
Swine21.0
Poultry3.1
 

 93. 

Use Table 19-1. In 2005, there were approximately 60.6 million swine in the U.S. About how much emissions did EACH of these swine produce?
a.
0.035 metric tons
b.
0.35 metric tons
c.
3.5 metric tons
d.
35 metric tons
e.
3500 metric tons
 
 
Figure 19-3
nar023-1.jpg
 

 94. 

Use Figure 19-3. Which of the following processes would likely contribute the most to the greenhouse effect?
a.
raising of livestock
b.
ignoring the Montreal protocol
c.
supporting slash and burn agriculture
d.
stimulating microbial digestion of organic matter
e.
usage of hydrocarbon fuel for energy
 

 95. 

The overall state of being happy, healthy, and prosperous is known as:
a.
well-being
b.
minimalisim
c.
socialism
d.
environmental stewardship
e.
planetary world view
 

 96. 

Which type of economic asset includes all goods and services that humans produce?
a.
manufactured capital
b.
natural capital
c.
ecological economics
d.
environmental economics
e.
human capital
 

 97. 

Which of the following examples would be considered an external cost associated with the purchase of electricity from a coal-fired power plant?
a.
the cost of constructing the plant
b.
the cost of labor
c.
the medical expenses incurred by exposure to the plant’s pollution
d.
the cost of advertising the facility
e.
the cost of the coal being burned in the plant
 

 98. 

The measure of all the goods and services produced within the borders of a nation in a year is defined as the:
a.
gross domestic product
b.
genuine progress indicator
c.
market equilibrium
d.
transaction cost
e.
externality
 
 
Figure 20-2

nar024-1.jpg
 

 99. 

Use Figure 20-2. What model is shown in the figure?
a.
the Genuine Progress Index
b.
the Gross Domestic Product
c.
the Kuznets curve
d.
the Human development index
e.
the Microcredit cycle
 
 
Figure 20-3

nar025-1.jpg
 

 100. 

Use Figure 20-3. Based on the graph, the rate of change in per capita GPI between 1980 and 2000 would be closest to:
a.
$5000/year
b.
$2500/year
c.
$500/year
d.
$250/year
e.
$0/yr
 



 
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