Name: 
 

APES Chapter 2 & 3 Practice



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Mono Lake is a terminal lake, which means that
a.
it has no inputs or outputs of water.
b.
it has only inputs of water.
c.
no new water enters the lake.
d.
no water leaves the lake.
e.
water enters the lake through streams and leaves the lake through evaporation.
 

 2. 

Mono Lake is one of the largest sources of _____ in the U.S.
a.
water
b.
salt
c.
shrimp
d.
windblown dust
e.
fish
 

 3. 

The study of a system in the context of environmental science may involve
a.
predator-prey relationships.
b.
energy exchange.
c.
only relationships of biological components to one another.
d.
only relationships of biological and non-biological components.
e.
a and b.
 

 4. 

Matter is
a.
anything that has volume and mass.
b.
anything that has energy.
c.
anything that doesn’t have mass.
d.
anything that doesn’t have volume.
e.
None of these answers are correct.
 

 5. 

Mass is
a.
exactly the same thing as weight.
b.
a force.
c.
different on the moon than it is on Earth.
d.
a measure of the amount of matter something contains.
e.
the result of gravity.
 

 6. 

The atomic number of an element is
a.
the number of protons.
b.
the number of electrons + protons.
c.
the number of protons + neutrons.
d.
the same as the atomic mass.
e.
the number of electrons + neutrons.
 

 7. 

Compounds
a.
are the same as molecules.
b.
are made up of cells.
c.
are found in orbitals.
d.
contain more than one element.
e.
are not found in nature.
 

 8. 

Isotopes of an element must have the same
a.
atomic mass.
b.
number of neutrons.
c.
number of electrons.
d.
number of protons and neutrons combined.
e.
number of protons.
 

 9. 

Mass number refers to the
a.
number of protons.
b.
number of protons + neutrons.
c.
same thing as the atomic number.
d.
number of electrons.
e.
number of isotopes.
 

 10. 

The rate of radioactive decay
a.
cannot change the type of element.
b.
requires an input of a second element to become a third element.
c.
is measured in half-lives.
d.
is measured in number of electrons.
e.
doesn’t happen spontaneously.
 

 11. 

The proportion of carbon-14 in an organism is useful in figuring out the age of an organism after it dies because
a.
carbon-14 decays to carbon-13.
b.
the proportion of carbon-14 is stable forever.
c.
carbon-14 becomes more plentiful over time.
d.
the proportion of carbon-14 slowly decreases after the death of the organism.
e.
It is not true that the proportion of carbon-14 is useful in dating the ages of organisms.
 

 12. 

Which is a true statement?
a.
Radioactive carbon-14 decays to nitrogen-14.
b.
Living organisms incorporate carbon into their tissues at a ratio of 2:1 carbon-13 to carbon-14.
c.
Carbon-14 is found only in dead organisms.
d.
Carbon-12 is found only in dead organisms.
e.
Nitrogen-14 naturally decays to carbon-14.
 

 13. 

Elements that gain or lose electrons to form compounds create
a.
ionic bonds.
b.
protons.
c.
covalent bonds.
d.
molecular bonds.
e.
isotopes.
 

 14. 

To produce sodium chloride, common table salt, a single electron in the outer shell of the sodium atom is transferred to the outer shell of the chlorine atom.  This is an example of
a.
the formation of an ionic bond.
b.
the formation of a covalent bond.
c.
radioactive decay.
d.
the formation of a hydrogen bond.
e.
None of the above.
 

 15. 

The surface tension of water results from the
a.
adhesion of water molecules at the surface.
b.
cohesion of water molecules below the surface.
c.
cohesion of water molecules at the surface.
d.
many water striders on the surface.
e.
high boiling point.
 

 16. 

At the atmospheric pressure found at sea level, water
a.
is always a solid.
b.
boils at 212°F.
c.
cannot exist as a gas.
d.
boils at a lower temperature than hydrogen sulfide.
e.
is no longer an effective solvent.
 

 17. 

Water reaches its highest density at
a.
100°C.
b.
39°F.
c.
100°F.
d.
4°C.
e.
0°C.
 

 18. 

As a solid or a liquid, water reaches its lowest density at
a.
4°C.
b.
39°F.
c.
100°F.
d.
100°C.
e.
0°C.
 

 19. 

Water is a good solvent. This statement explains which of the following phenomena?
I. High concentrations of dissolved ions in seawater.
II. Capacity of living organisms to store many types of molecules in solution in their cells.
III. Easy transport of toxic substances through the environment.
a.
I only.
b.
II only
c.
I and II.
d.
I and III.
e.
I, II, and III.
 

 20. 

On the pH scale, _____ is neutral.
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
6
e.
7
 

 21. 

A substance with a pH of 4 has _____ times the hydrogen ion concentration of a substance with a pH of 6.
a.
2
b.
5
c.
10
d.
100
e.
1000
 

 22. 

In a chemical reaction,
a.
atoms are destroyed.
b.
atoms are created.
c.
atoms are neither created nor destroyed.
d.
there are no changes in the bonds between atoms.
e.
atoms are rarely recombined.
 

 23. 

According to the law of conservation of matter,
I.matter can be created
II.matter cannot be destroyed
III.after a chemical reaction, the original atoms remain
a.
I only.
b.
II only.
c.
III only.
d.
I and II.
e.
II and III.
 

 24. 

An exception to the law of conservation of matter is seen in
a.
nuclear reactions in which matter may change into energy.
b.
single replacement reactions.
c.
double replacement reactions.
d.
both b and c.
e.
the natural environment, where most waste can be buried forever.
 

 25. 

Inorganic compounds
I. never contain carbon
II. may contain carbon bound to elements other than hydrogen
III. always contain carbon bound to hydrogen
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
I and II
e.
I, II, and III.
 

 26. 

Types of macromolecules, the basis of biological molecules, include
a.
carbohydrates, methane, nucleic acids, and lipids.
b.
carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.
c.
organelles, proteins, nucleic acids, and lipids.
d.
carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, and organophosphates.
e.
carbohydrates, methane, nucleic acids, and lipids.
 

 27. 

The following is a true statement about carbohydrates.
a.
An example of a carbohydrate is glucose.
b.
Carbohydrates of composed of carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen atoms.
c.
Cellulose, a carbohydrate, is a raw material for ethanol.
d.
Carbohydrates are used by plants and animals for storage of energy.
e.
Both a and c.
 

 28. 

Proteins are
a.
made up of long chains of sugars.
b.
made up of chains of amino acids.
c.
made of glucose.
d.
important in structural support, energy storage, and protection from infection.
e.
both b and d.
 

 29. 

RNA is
a.
a long chain of nitrogen-containing organic molecules called amino acids.
b.
responsible for translating code stored in DNA.
c.
a sugar responsible for protecting organisms from infection.
d.
an acid responsible for quick energy.
e.
a highly organized entity composed of four macromolecules.
 

 30. 

Lipids
a.
are proteins.
b.
are composed of long chain of nitrogen-containing organic molecules called amino acids.
c.
are acids responsible for quick energy.
d.
do not mix with water.
e.
provide the raw material for ethanol.
 

 31. 

The “ability to do work “ is called
a.
power
b.
joules
c.
energy.
d.
heat
e.
radiation.
 

 32. 

Most energy on Earth comes from
a.
the Sun.
b.
volcanoes.
c.
trees.
d.
water.
e.
fire.
 

 33. 

The difference between potential and kinetic energy is that
a.
potential energy has not yet been released.
b.
kinetic energy has not yet been released.
c.
potential energy is measured in calories, whereas kinetic energy is measured in joules.
d.
potential energy is measured in watts, whereas kinetic energy is measured in joules.
e.
kinetic energy cannot be captured at a dam.
 

 34. 

Fifty-six calories = approximately _____ joules.
a.
234
b.
275
c.
13
d.
350
e.
468
 

 35. 

Twenty-five Btu = _____ joules.
a.
45
b.
56,375
c.
4416
d.
26,375
e.
42
 

 36. 

290,800 J = _____ kilowatt-hours (kWh)
a.
10,400
b.
0.005
c.
10,400,000,000
d.
4567.9
e.
0.08
 

 37. 

Twenty-five Btu = _____ MJ
a.
26,375,000
b.
0.026
c.
26
d.
263,375
e.
2,630,750
 

 38. 

14,500 kilocalories = _____ kWh.
a.
36,250
b.
16,850
c.
16.85
d.
16,852.2
e.
60,668
 

 39. 

A dishwasher uses 700 watts each time it is run.  The cycle takes one hour.  It is run 150 times per year.  How much energy does it use in one year?
a.
105 kWh
b.
1050 kWh
c.
1050 J
d.
700 kWh
e.
0.10 MJ
 

 40. 

If an energy source is 35 percent efficient, what happens to the other 65 percent of the energy?
a.
It is converted to another form of useable energy.
b.
It is converted to solar energy.
c.
It is converted to electromagnetic radiation.
d.
It is lost as waste heat.
e.
Both b and d.
 

 41. 

In the electrical lines that transmit electricity between a power plant and a home, _____ percent of the energy is lost as heat and sound.
a.
10
b.
30
c.
50
d.
70
e.
90
 

 42. 

If petroleum used by a power generator is 50 percent efficient and the lines that carry the electricity to a light are 25 percent efficient, what is the energy efficiency of converting this oil into this light?
a.
0.50%
b.
12.5%
c.
1.25%
d.
125%
e.
75%
 

 43. 

The second law of thermodynamics states that
a.
in an energy conversion, no energy is lost.
b.
all systems move toward increased entropy.
c.
new energy is available in all systems.
d.
matter can be neither created nor destroyed.
e.
velocity increases as a dropped object nears the earth’s surface.
 

 44. 

The types of organisms that can live in an environment may be
a.
determined by the amount of solar energy available.
b.
determined by the amount of dead organisms available.
c.
determined by chemical energy emitted from a deep sea vent.
d.
evident in the size of the plants.
e.
All of these answers are correct.
 

 45. 

An example of an open system is
a.
not found on earth.
b.
found only in the oceans.
c.
found in all deep caves.
d.
found in the Pacific Ocean.
e.
Both c and d.
 

 46. 

A systems analysis of an ecosystem could involve
I. inputs of nutrients.
II. outputs of energy.
III. evaporation.
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
I and II
e.
I, II, and III
 

 47. 

In a steady state,
a.
input is greater than output.
b.
Input equals output.
c.
The system changes over time.
d.
The amount of energy is not increasing.
e.
Both b and d.
 

 48. 

The state of global systems on Earth, such as the atmosphere and oceans,
a.
are in steady state today.
b.
have never been in steady state.
c.
are changing.
d.
were in steady state until 2010.
e.
are clearly showing a net loss of water.
 

 49. 

A negative feedback loop is
a.
when feed back into the system increases the rate of progress.
b.
seen in the example of increased greenhouse gases leading to global warming.
c.
seen in the example of world population growth.
d.
when a system responds to a change by returning it to its original state.
e.
Both b and d.
 

 50. 

Feedback loops that regulate Earth’s climate are
a.
negative.
b.
positive.
c.
both negative and positive.
d.
impossible to study.
e.
becoming less intense.
 

 51. 

An example of a positive feedback loop is
I.warmer temperatures of Earth’s surface decreasing the evaporation of water.
II.water evaporation creating low-altitude clouds reflecting sunlight back into clouds.
III.water evaporation creating high-altitude clouds absorbing terrestrial energy that would have escaped the atmosphere.
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
I and II.
e.
I, II and III
 

 52. 

Extinctions of species can be the result of
a.
natural systems changing.
b.
introduction of invasive species.
c.
systems that are not in steady state.
d.
human inputs.
e.
All of these answers are correct.
 

 53. 

The Comprehensive Everglades Restoration Plan of 2000 was designed to repair damage caused by
a.
diversion of freshwater inputs to provide drinking water for the people of southern Florida.
b.
human development in Southern Florida.
c.
overgrowth of species that enjoy the changed conditions of the Everglades.
d.
damage to the Everglades caused by farm waste.
e.
All of these answers are correct.
 

 54. 

Steps taken to restore the Everglades include
a.
decreasing water flow through the water tolerant grasses.
b.
reduction of pollutants entering the ecosystem.
c.
addition of new species that will tolerate water more effectively.
d.
removal of all invasive species.
e.
removing all housing and farms with 50 miles of the Everglades.
 

 55. 

Which of the following is a biotic factor?
a.
Producers
b.
pH
c.
water
d.
humidity
e.
energy
 

 56. 

Which of the following are biotic?
I. Decomposers
II. Energy flow
III. Producers
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
I and III
e.
I, II and III
 

 57. 

Choose the correct sequence for energy flow within an ecosystem
a.
Herbivores ® producers ® carnivores ® scavengers
b.
Producers ® herbivores ® carnivores ® scavengers
c.
Producers ® carnivores ® herbivores ® carnivores
d.
Scavengers ® producers ® herbivores ® carnivores
e.
Carnivores ® scavengers ® producers ® herbivores
 

 58. 

Of the following, which are products of photosynthesis?
I. Glucose
II. Carbon dioxide
III. Water
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
I and II
e.
I and III
 

 59. 

Which of the following are needed for photosynthesis?
a.
Water, solar energy and carbon dioxide
b.
Water, solar energy and glucose
c.
Carbon dioxide, energy and glucose
d.
Oxygen, water and energy
e.
Oxygen and glucose
 

 60. 

Which of the following shows the complex interactions between species within an ecosystem?
a.
Food chain
b.
Food web
c.
Food pyramid
d.
Energy pyramid
e.
Trophic level diagram
 

 61. 

The sun is the ultimate source of energy for terrestrial ecosystems.  Approximately how much of the potential energy available from the sun’s rays hitting the earth is used in photosynthesis?
a.
1%
b.
10%
c.
25%
d.
50%
e.
90%
 

 62. 

Which of the following is the approximate efficiency of the energy transfer as energy flows through the food chain?
a.
1%
b.
10%
c.
25%
d.
50%
e.
90%
 

 63. 

How is the majority of energy within an ecosystem lost?
a.
Heat loss
b.
Energy used to grow biomass
c.
Cellular respiration
d.
Cellular metabolism
e.
Energy used to capture prey
 

 64. 

Which of the following statements best describes the concept of GPP (Gross Primary Production)?
a.
Total amount of energy available to primary consumers
b.
Total amount of energy available from the sun
c.
Total amount of solar energy that producers capture via photosynthesis
d.
Total amount of energy available within an ecosystem
e.
Total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem
 
 
Figure 3-1

nar001-1.jpg
 

 65. 

Use Figure 3-1. Which of the organisms illustrated above would be considered autotrophs?
a.
Beetle
b.
Bacteria
c.
Grass
d.
Cheetah
e.
Giraffe
 

 66. 

Use Figure 3-1. Which of the organisms illustrated above would be considered primary consumers?
a.
Rabbit
b.
Cheetah
c.
Lion
d.
Vulture
e.
Beetle
 

 67. 

Use Figure 3-1. Which of the organisms illustrated above would be considered a decomposer?
a.
Vulture
b.
Zebra
c.
Hyena
d.
Bacteria
e.
Hare
 

 68. 

Use Figure 3-1. Which of the organisms illustrated above would be the top predator?
a.
Zebra
b.
Hyena
c.
Lion
d.
Cheetah
e.
Giraffe
 

 69. 

Use Figure 3-1. Which of the organisms above would occupy the lowest trophic level?
a.
Hyena
b.
Cheetah
c.
Vulture
d.
Giraffe
e.
Lion
 
 
Figure 3-2
nar002-1.jpg
 

 70. 

Use Figure 3-2. Which ecosystem is the most productive?
a.
Tundra
b.
Tropical rainforest
c.
Coral reefs
d.
Swamps and marshes
e.
Desert scrub
 

 71. 

Use Figure 3-2. How would you describe the relationship between temperature of a continental ecosystem and net primary productivity based on the data provided?
a.
There is no clear relationship between temperature and productivity
b.
The warmer the ecosystem, the higher the productivity
c.
The colder the ecosystem, the higher the productivity
d.
Continental ecosystems are more productive than marine ecosystems
e.
The warmer the ecosystem, the lower the productivity
 
 
Figure 3-3
nar003-1.jpg
 

 72. 

Use Figure 3-3. Looking at the ecological pyramid above, what would be the most likely number of joules to fill in X, Y and Z?
a.
X=100; Y=1000; Z=10,000
b.
X=1; Y=500; Z=10,000
c.
X=10,000; Y=500; Z=1
d.
X=50; Y=50,000; Z=500,000
e.
X=10,000; Y=1000; Z=10
 

 73. 

Use Figure 3-3. What type of organism would you expect to find on the lowest level of the pyramid above?
a.
Gazelle
b.
Lion
c.
Vulture
d.
Giraffe
e.
Grasses
 

 74. 

During what stage of the hydrologic cycle is water released to the atmosphere from plants?
a.
Evaporation
b.
Transpiration
c.
Precipitation
d.
Infiltration
e.
Condensation
 

 75. 

Humans have a considerable effect on the hydrologic cycle. Which of the following has a direct effect on this cycle?
I. Deforestation
II. Urbanization
III. Mining of fossil fuels
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
I and II
e.
I, II and III
 

 76. 

Which stage of the hydrologic cycle can be the most direct cause of algal blooms?
a.
Evaporation
b.
Precipitation
c.
Transpiration
d.
Infiltration
e.
Runoff
 

 77. 

Which of the following is considered to be the most important element in living organisms?
a.
Carbon
b.
Hydrogen
c.
Oxygen
d.
Phosphorus
e.
Nitrogen
 

 78. 

Which element is the primary component of fossil fuels?
a.
Carbon
b.
Hydrogen
c.
Oxygen
d.
Phosphorus
e.
Nitrogen
 

 79. 

What relatively recent development is greatly impacting the carbon cycle?
a.
Photosynthesis
b.
Cellular Respiration
c.
Formation of fossil fuels
d.
Combustion of fossil fuels
e.
Formation of carbonate rocks
 

 80. 

Which element is the most abundant in the atmosphere?
a.
Oxygen
b.
Nitrogen
c.
Phosphorus
d.
Sulfur
e.
Hydrogen
 

 81. 

What group of organisms is primarily responsible for the processes that occur in the nitrogen cycle?
a.
Autotrophs
b.
Heterotrophs
c.
Bacteria
d.
Detritovores
e.
Scavengers
 

 82. 

In what ways have humans had an effect on the Nitrogen cycle?
I. Use of fertilizers
II. Combustion of fossil fuels
III. Urbanization
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
I and II
e.
I, II and III
 

 83. 

When nutrients are transported through soil with water, this process is known as
a.
Infiltration
b.
Percolation
c.
Decomposition
d.
Leaching
e.
Nitrification
 

 84. 

A scientist is observing a series of plants and measuring their growth with the addition of nutrients.  She notices that the addition of nitrate has no effect on the growth while the addition of phosphorus shows significant growth.  What conclusion can she draw about the nutrients in relation to this plant?
a.
Phosphorus is a limiting nutrient
b.
Nitrogen is a limiting nutrient
c.
The plant does not require Nitrogen
d.
The plant does not require Phosphorus
e.
The plant had an excess of nutrients, limiting its growth
 

 85. 

What is the major source of phosphorus on land?
a.
Deposition from atmospheric phosphorus
b.
Compounds that are formed by autotrophs during photosynthesis
c.
Compounds released from the weathering of rocks
d.
Compounds formed from bacterial conversion
e.
Compounds dissolved in precipitation
 

 86. 

The addition of a limiting nutrient to an ecosystem may lead to an algal bloom. What effect will this algal bloom have on the oxygen content of the water?
a.
The algae bloom will cause the oxygen content in the water to increase overall
b.
The algae bloom will cause the oxygen content in the water to decrease, leading to hypoxic conditions
c.
The algae bloom will have no impact on the oxygen content of the water
d.
The algae bloom will cause rapid fluctuations of oxygen in the water
e.
The oxygen content will vary based on depth of the water
 

 87. 

What impact have humans had on the phosphorus cycle?
I. Use of phosphorus containing fertilizers
II. Increased urbanization of forested areas
III. Increased use of phosphorus containing detergents
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
I and II
e.
I and III
 

 88. 

What is a watershed?
a.
Network of streams leading to a larger river
b.
Network of rivers and bays that lead to the ocean
c.
Reservoir of water stored underground
d.
Area of land that drains to a water body
e.
Extensive wetland system leading to a bay
 

 89. 

A new field has developed that focuses on restoring damaged ecosystems.  This field is known as:
a.
Mitigation ecology
b.
Reconciliation ecology
c.
Disturbance reconciliation
d.
Habitat balancing ecology
e.
Restoration ecology
 

 90. 

Which ecosystems are considered to be the most diverse?
a.
Ecosystems experiencing high levels of disturbance
b.
Ecosystems experiencing intermediate levels of disturbance
c.
Ecosystems experiencing low levels of disturbance
d.
Ecosystems experiencing no disturbance
e.
Ecosystems that once had high levels of disturbance but have been stable for hundreds of years
 

 91. 

Products obtained from nature that humans can use such as lumber, medicines and food crops are known as:
a.
Ecological benefits
b.
Provisions
c.
Supplies
d.
Service values
e.
Intrinsically valuable
 

 92. 

Which of the following has the biggest impact on the resilience of an ecosystem?
a.
Amount of time the disturbance lasts
b.
Amount of time the ecosystem has been established
c.
Amount of predators present in the ecosystem
d.
Amount of human intervention that is allowed
e.
Amount of genetic biodiversity of the ecosystem
 

 93. 

An ecosystem that has been clear cut showed a dramatic decrease in the amount of nutrients and energy that were cycled in the ecosystem.  In this example, the ecosystem has:
a.
High resistance
b.
Low resistance
c.
High resilience
d.
Low resilience
e.
Equal resilience and resistance
 

 94. 

Processes that help to balance the ecosystems, such as balancing nutrient cycling, are known as:
a.
Provisions
b.
Regulating services
c.
Support systems
d.
Resilience
e.
Cultural services
 

 95. 

Another name for a producer is a(n):
a.
Heterotroph
b.
Autotroph
c.
Decomposer
d.
Nutrient
e.
Scavenger
 

 96. 

What are the physical products of cellular respiration?
a.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide
b.
Nitrogen and carbon
c.
Glucose and oxygen
d.
Water and carbon dioxide
e.
Glucose and water
 

 97. 

In which step of the nitrogen cycle do plants absorb nitrogen compounds?
a.
Nitrification
b.
Denitrification
c.
Assimilation
d.
Ammonification
e.
Nitrogen fixation
 

 98. 

The aesthetic beauty of a forest is an example of:
a.
Resilience
b.
A regulating service
c.
A cultural service
d.
A provision
e.
A support system
 

 99. 

Water that moves across the surface of the land into streams and rivers is called:
a.
Evaporation
b.
Precipitation
c.
Groundwater
d.
Transpiration
e.
Runoff
 

 100. 

What happens during nitrogen fixation?
a.
Bacteria in the soil convert nitrate into nitrogen gas and nitrous oxide.
b.
Nitrogen wastes are converted by bacteria into ammonium.
c.
Organisms convert nitrogen into carbon dioxide and energy,
d.
Atmospheric nitrogen diffuses into the soil and is converted into ammonia.
e.
Nitrogen is absorbed by plants.
 



 
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